Name:   MartiniMan - Subject:   Unlimited capacity to be shown wrong Date:   6/18/2020 7:41:11 PM

According to Worldometer, there have been 292,348 confirmed cases in Spain with 27,136 deaths which is exactly equal to 9.3% which is not the true mortality rate but we'll got with it for the sake of argument.  In the U.S. we have 2,261,265 confirmed cases with 120,604 deaths which equals 5.3%.  Of course Spain has socialized medicine so maybe, just maybe that contributes to the death rates although we don't know for sure because, as your graph correctly poiints out use of confirmed cases is a poor measure of mortality.  Just in case you don't understand that...it is the wrong way to do it.  

Please also note the median age in Spain is 45 years old and in the U.S it is 38 years old and we know age is a significant factor in mortality.....you do know that right?  The population density of Spain is 94 people per square kilometer and the U.S. is 36 and you do know population density is a factor, right?  The percentage of the population over age 65 in Spain is almost 20% and it is only 16% in the U.S. 

I could go on but you are maybe getting the idea that the use or lack of use of a single drug is but one of many factors and I suspect a very limited one vis-a-vis mortality.  I suspect given my experience traveling in Europe and needing medical care that socialized medicine is the biggest factor.

But I refer you to this article about the mortality rate in Spain.....funny, they never mention hydroxychloroquine but they do refer to the issues I raised.  Just keep digging deeper Goofy...you seem to enjoy it.

https://english.elpais.com/society/2020-04-07/why-does-spain-have-the-worlds-highest-coronavirus-mortality-rate.html